Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

You'll usually find your answer there.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

New body size database for marine animals is a “library of life” - Ars Technica

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Angels Acquire LaMonte Wade Jr. - MLB Trade Rumors

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

There's no rule.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Artists get better with age, e.g., painting. Yet when it comes to pop music, the famous work tends to be written when musicians are in their twenties. So, why aren't Bob Dylan or the Stones banging out amazing tunes now?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Read also: